RBSE Class 10 English Model Paper 2025-26 | राजस्थान बोर्ड कक्षा 10 अंग्रेजी नमूना प्रश्न पत्र Blueprint सहित

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RBSE Class 10 English Model Paper 2025-26
RBSE Class 10 English
Model Paper 2025-26
📝
Board RBSE (BSER)
Class 10th (Secondary)
Subject English
Session 2025-26
Total Marks 80
Duration 3 Hours 15 Min
Total Questions 20
Paper Type Model Paper
Source BSER Official

RBSE Class 10 English Model Paper 2025-26 राजस्थान माध्यमिक शिक्षा बोर्ड (BSER) द्वारा जारी आधिकारिक नमूना प्रश्न पत्र है। यह Model Paper सत्र 2025-26 की माध्यमिक परीक्षा (Secondary Examination 2026) के लिए निर्धारित Blueprint के अनुसार तैयार किया गया है।

इस लेख में प्रश्न पत्र की योजना (Blueprint), अंक विभाजन तथा संपूर्ण नमूना प्रश्न पत्र प्रस्तुत किया गया है। Solutions के लिए RBSE Class 10 English Model Paper 2025-26 Solved देखें।

प्रश्न पत्र की योजना (Blueprint 2025-26)

RBSE कक्षा 10 अंग्रेजी प्रश्न पत्र 2025-26 की योजना निम्नानुसार है:

विवरण जानकारी
कक्षा 10th
विषय English (अंग्रेजी)
अवधि 3 Hours 15 Minutes
पूर्णांक 80
कुल प्रश्न 20
आंतरिक विकल्प प्रश्न 3, 4, 5, एवं 11 से 19 में

उद्देश्य हेतु अंकभार

क्र.सं. उद्देश्य अंकभार प्रतिशत
1. ज्ञान (Knowledge) 30 37.50%
2. अवबोध (Understanding) 24 30.00%
3. ज्ञानोपयोग (Application) 13 16.25%
4. कौशल (Skill) 8 10.00%
5. विश्लेषण (Analysis) 5 6.25%
योग (Total) 80 100%

प्रश्नों के प्रकार वार अंकभार

क्र.सं. प्रश्नों का प्रकार प्रश्नों की संख्या अंक प्रतिप्रश्न कुल अंक प्रतिशत समय (मिनट)
1. बहुविकल्पात्मक (MCQ) 18 1 18 22.50% 36
2. रिक्त स्थान (Fill in Blanks) 6 1 6 7.50% 12
3. अतिलघूत्तरात्मक (Very Short) 14 1 14 17.50% 42
4. लघूत्तरात्मक (Short Answer) 9 2 18 22.50% 36
5. दीर्घउत्तरीय (Long Answer) 4 3 12 15.00% 24
6. निबंधात्मक (Essay Type) 3 4 12 15.00% 45
योग (Total) 54 80 100% 195

विषय वस्तु का अंकभार (Section-wise Distribution)

क्र.सं. विषय वस्तु अंकभार प्रतिशत
1 Section A (Reading) Unseen Passage -1 8 10.00%
2 Unseen Passage -2 8 10.00%
3 Section B (Writing) Letter/E-mail 4 5.00%
4 Short Story Writing 4 5.00%
5 Short writing task based on verbal/visual aid 4 5.00%
6 Section C (Grammar) Tenses 4 5.00%
7 Subject Verb Concord 2 2.50%
8 Clauses (Complex Sentences) 2 2.50%
9 Active and Passive Voice 1 1.25%
10 Reported Speech 1 1.25%
11 Section D (Text Books) First Flight Prose Extract 6 7.50%
12 Prose based Textual Questions 9 11.25%
13 Drama Textual Question (The Proposal) 3 3.75%
14 Poetry Extract 5 6.25%
15 Poetry based Textual Questions 7 8.75%
16 Footprint without Feet 12 15.00%
Total 80 100%

परीक्षार्थियों के लिए सामान्य निर्देश

  1. परीक्षार्थी सर्वप्रथम अपना अनुक्रमांक प्रश्न पत्र पर अनिवार्यतः लिखें।
  2. सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
  3. प्रत्येक प्रश्न का उत्तर दी गई उत्तर पुस्तिका में ही लिखें।
  4. जिन प्रश्नों में आंतरिक खंड हैं, उन सभी के उत्तर एक साथ लिखें।
  5. प्रश्न का उत्तर लिखने से पूर्व प्रश्न का क्रमांक अवश्य लिखें।
  6. प्रश्न संख्या 3, 4, 5 एवं 11 से 19 में आंतरिक विकल्प हैं।

नमूना प्रश्न पत्र (Model Paper)

माध्यमिक परीक्षा, 2026
Secondary Examination, 2026
नमूना प्रश्न-पत्र (Model Paper)
विषय – अंग्रेजी (English)
कक्षा – 10वीं (Class: 10th)

समय: 03 घण्टे 15 मिनट                                                          पूर्णांक: 80

Section-A
(READING)

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

The green revolution was a period of agricultural transformation in India that began in the 1960s. It introduced high yielding varieties of seeds, modern irrigation techniques and chemical fertilizers to increase food production. Mr. M.S. Swaminathan, known as the father of India's Green Revolution, played a crucial role in this transformation. The movement primarily focused on wheat and rice cultivation in states like Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh. As a result, India became self-sufficient in food grain production by the 1970s ending its dependence on food imports. Wheat production increased from 11 million tonnes in 1960 to 73 million tonnes by 2006. However, the Green Revolution had some negative effects including depletion of ground water, soil degradation and increased regional inequality. Small and marginal farmers in rain-fed areas did not benefit equally. Despite its limitations, the Green Revolution saved millions from starvation and remains a significant milestone in India's agricultural history.

Questions:

i. Who is known as the father of India's Green Revolution?      (1)
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad     (B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan     (D) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

ii. Which crops were primarily focused on during the Green Revolution?      (1)
(A) Cotton and sugarcane     (B) Wheat and rice
(C) Pulses and seeds     (D) Tea and coffee

iii. When did India become self-sufficient in food grain production?      (1)
(A) 1970s     (B) 1960s
(C) 2006s     (D) 1980s

iv. What was one of the negative effects of the Green Revolution?      (1)
(A) Increase in food imports     (B) Increase in manual farming
(C) Depletion of ground water     (D) Decrease in crop production

v. Which states were the main beneficiaries of the Green Revolution?      (1)
(A) Kerala, Karnataka     (B) Punjab, Haryana
(C) Rajasthan, Gujrat     (D) Bihar, Odisha

vi. By 2006, what was India's wheat production?      (1)
(A) 73 million tonnes     (B) 11 million tonnes
(C) 60 million tonnes     (D) 20 million tonnes

vii. Find a word from the passage that means the same as 'conversion' or 'change'.      (1)
(A) Revolution     (B) Transformation
(C) Production     (D) Cultivation

viii. Find a word from the passage that means the opposite of 'dependence'.      (1)
(A) Self-sufficient     (B) Increase
(C) Depletion     (D) Milestone

2. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Tourism has emerged as one of India's fastest growing industries, contributing significantly to the national economy while simultaneously influencing the country's cultural fabric. This sector presents both tremendous opportunities and considerable challenges that require thoughtful consideration. India's rich cultural heritage, historical monuments, diverse landscape and spiritual traditions attract millions of domestic and international tourists annually. Tourism generates employment for guides, hotel workers, artisans and transporters particularly benefiting local communities near tourist destinations. Foreign tourists bring valuable foreign exchange, strengthening Indian economy. The industry also promotes cultural exchange, helping preserve traditional arts, crafts and festivals. States like Rajasthan, Kerala and Goa have prospered through tourism, developing better infrastructure and facilities.

However, uncontrolled tourism has serious drawbacks. Popular sites like the TajMahal and hill stations face environmental degradation due to overcrowding and pollution. The commercialization of culture sometimes leads to the loss of authentic traditions as performances become mere entertainment for tourists. Local communities may experience rising costs of living as prices inflate in tourist areas. Additionally, some historical sites suffer damage from irresponsible tourist behaviour. The gap between tourist-focused development and local needs can create resentment among residents. Sustainable tourism is the solution that balances economic benefits with cultural and environmental preservation. This includes limiting visitor numbers at sensitive sites, promoting responsible tourist behaviour, ensuring local communities benefit fairly from tourism revenue and investing in heritage conservation. Eco-tourism and rural tourism initiatives can distribute benefits more widely while maintaining cultural authenticity and environmental integrity.

Questions:

i. How does tourism benefit local communities?      (1)

ii. Name two Indian states that have prospered through tourism.      (1)

iii. What environmental problem is faced by popular tourist places like the Taj Mahal?      (1)

iv. How can commercialization of culture affect traditional practices?      (1)

v. What economic problem do local residents face in tourist areas?      (1)

vi. What is sustainable tourism according to the passage?      (1)

vii. Write the similar word of the following from the passage: 'Damage' or 'decline'      (1)

viii. Write the opposite word of the following from the passage: 'Destruction'      (1)

Section-B
(WRITING)

3. Suppose you are Radheshyam/Radhika staying at Government Hostel Bikaner. Write a letter to your father seeking his permission to join an educational historical tour organised by your school.      (4)

OR

Suppose you are Nehal/Neha studying in class 10. You are applying for scholarship scheme. Write an e-mail to your school principal at principalgssssksg@gmail.com requesting him for your study certificate.

4. Write a short story with the help of the given outline in about 100 words. Also mention the title and the moral of the story.      (4)

A bee falls into water---------struggles---------a dove sees---------drops a leaf---------bee climbs on it---------saves---------a hunter aims at dove---------bee stings hunter---------gun drops---------dove flies away---------bee happy.

OR

Two friends in a forest---------a bear appears---------one climbs on a tree---------other lies down---------holds breath---------bear sniffs---------thinks him dead---------goes away---------friend comes down---------asks about bear whispering---------replies---------not to trust false friends.

5. Write a paragraph in about 100 words on 'Campaign for a Clean India'.      (4)

(Cleanliness is everyone's responsibility, free from litter, unhygienic condition, waste disposal, green India)

OR

Write a paragraph in about 100 words on the given visual aid. (Air Pollution)

Section-C
(GRAMMAR)

6. Fill in the blanks with appropriate forms of the verbs given in brackets:      (4)

i) The teacher---------(explain) the lesson before the bell rang.      (1)

ii) I---------(not see) such a beautiful painting in my life.      (1)

iii) Rajni---------(work) in this company since 2015.      (1)

iv) By next year, Suresh---------(complete) his tenth class.      (1)

7. Fill in the blanks with a verb in agreement with its subject:      (2)

i) Each of the students---------(has/have) submitted the assignment.      (1)

ii) Neither Ramesh nor his friends---------(know/knows) the correct answer.      (1)

8. Combine the following pairs of sentences using the words given in brackets:      (2)

i) He was very tired. He could not walk any further. (so----that)      (1)

ii) The boy is my best friend. He won the first prize. (who)      (1)

9. Change the following sentence into passive voice:      (1)

The teacher praised the students for their hard work.

10. Rewrite the following sentence changing it into Indirect Speech:      (1)

The manager said to the employee, "Why have you not submitted the report yet?"

Section-D
(TEXT BOOK)

11. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

That is when I joined the African National Congress, and that is when the hunger for my own freedom became the greater hunger for the freedom of my people. It was this desire for the freedom of my people to live their lives with dignity and self - respect that animated my life, that transformed a frightened young man into a bold one, that drove a law-abiding attorney to become a criminal, that turned a family-loving husband into a man without a home, that forced a life-loving man to live life a monk. I am no more virtuous or self-sacrificing than the next man, but I found that I could not even enjoy the poor and limited freedom I was allowed when I knew my people were not free. Freedom is indivisible, the chains on anyone of my people were the chains on all of them, the chains on all of my people were the chains on me.

(i) Which organization did the speaker join?      (1)
(A) United Nations     (B) African National Congress
(C) Indian Congress     (D) African league

(ii) What did the speaker know about his people?      (1)
(A) completely free     (B) not free
(C) puzzled     (D) criminal

(iii) What did the speaker's hunger for personal freedom turn into?      (1)
(A) desire for wealth     (B) hunger for power
(C) desire for revenge     (D) hunger for the freedom of his people

(iv) How did the desire for freedom change the speaker?      (1)
(A) a teacher     (B) a bold man ready to sacrifice
(C) a wealthy man     (D) a politician

(v) What qualities did the speaker want his people to live with?      (1)

(vi) What comparison did the speaker use to explain shared suffering?      (1)

OR

The following Sunday Lencho came a bit earlier than usual to ask if there was a letter for him. It was the postman himself who handed the letter to him while the postmaster, experiencing the contentment of a man who has performed a good deed, looked on from his office. Lencho showed not the slightest surprise on seeing the money; such was his confidence- but he became angry when he counted the money. God could not have made a mistake, nor could he have denied Lencho what he had requested. Immediately, Lencho went up to the window to ask for paper and ink. On the public writing table, he started to write, with much wrinkling of his brow, caused by the effort he had to make to express his ideas. When he finished, he went to the window to buy a stamp which he licked and then affixed to the envelope with a blow of his fist.

(i) Who handed the letter to Lencho?      (1)
(A) The postmaster     (B) The postman
(B) A man     (D) A stranger

(ii) Where did Lencho go for a paper?      (1)
(A) To the window     (B) To the office
(C) To school     (D) To house

(iii) Who could not have made a mistake?      (1)
(A) Lencho     (B) God
(C) Postman     (D) Postmaster

(iv) When did Lencho come to the post office?      (1)
(A) Tuesday     (B) Monday
(C) Saturday     (D) Sunday

(v) Where did Lencho go immediately after counting the money?      (1)

(vi) Why did Lencho wrinkle his brow while writing the letter?      (1)

12. Answer any three of the following four questions in about 20-30 words each:      (2×3=6)

(i) Why does Anne want to keep a diary? (From the Diary of Anne Frank)

(ii) In what way, did the family help the young seagull during its first flight? (His First Flight)

(iii) What are the elders in Goa nostalgic about? (A Baker from Goa)

(iv) Why was the otter named 'Maxwell's Otter'? (Mijbil the Otter)

13. Answer any one of the following two questions in about 60 words:      (3×1=3)

(i) What is known about the first sermon of Buddha? (The Sermon at Benares)

(ii) Describe the popular legends that explain the discovery of tea. (Tea from Assam)

14. Answer any one of the following two questions in about 60 words:      (3×1=3)

(i) What is Lomov's claim about the Oxen Meadows? (The Proposal)

(ii) Write the character sketch of Natalya. (The Proposal)

15. Read any one of the following extracts and answer the questions that follow:      (3×1=3)

I sit inside, doors open to the veranda
writing long letters
in which I scarcely mention the departure
of the forest from the house.
The night is fresh, the whole moon shines
in the sky still open.

(i) Where does the poetess sit?      (1)
(A) outside     (B) inside
(B) in garden     (C) outdoor

(ii) What is the poetess doing?      (2)

(iii) How is the sky?      (2)

OR

Pistol in his left hand, pistol in his right,
And he held in his teeth a cutlass bright,
His beard was black, one leg was wood;
It was clear that the pirate meant no good.

(i) What does the pirate hold in his teeth?      (1)
(A) a knife     (B) a pistol
(B) a cutlass     (C) a torch

(ii) What was unusual about the pirate's leg?      (2)

(iii) What does the poet suggest about the pirate's intention?      (2)

16. Answer any two of the following three questions in about 20-30 words each:      (2×2=4)

(i) How does the tiger spend its life inside the zoo? (A Tiger in the Zoo)

(ii) Why does the poet say that no one will be sad? (For Anne Gregory)

(iii) What does the poet say the boy is learning from the loss of the ball? (The Ball Poem)

17. Answer any one of the following two questions in about 60 words:      (3×1=3)

(i) What characteristics of the Bengal Tiger are described by the poet? (How to Tell Wild Animals)

(ii) Why does Amanda moody most of the time? (Amanda!)

18. Answer any two of the following three questions in about 20-30 words each:      (2×2=4)

(i) Who tried to invade the earth in twenty first century? (The Book That Saved The Earth)

(ii) Why do Bholi's parents accept Bishambhar's marriage proposal? (Bholi)

(iii) Why is Mrs. Pumphrey worried about Tricki? (A Triumph of Surgery)

19. Answer any one of the following two questions in about 60 words:      (3×1=3)

(i) Describe Anil's life style. How does he make money? (The Thief's Story)

(ii) How are Max and Ausable different from each other? (The Midnight Visitor)

20. Choose the correct answer:      (1×5=5)

(i) What discovery did Griffin make? (Footprints without Feet)      (1)
(A) He could change metals into gold.
(B) He could make himself invisible.
(C) He could travel through time.
(D) He could walk on water.

(ii) What was the first collection that started Ebright's scientific journey? (The Making of a Scientist)      (1)
(A) coins     (B) stamps
(B) butterflies     (C) shells

(iii) What was Horace Danby's profession? (A Question of Trust)      (1)
(A) a doctor     (B) locksmith
(B) watch repairer     (C) owner of a rare book business

(iv) What does Matilda borrow for the ball? (The Necklace)      (1)
(A) a dress     (B) a hand bag
(B) a saree     (C) a necklace

(v) What does Bholi aspire to become after refusing to marry Bishambhar? (Bholi)      (1)
(A) a lawyer     (B) a doctor
(B) a teacher     (C) an engineer

संदर्भ

  1. राजस्थान माध्यमिक शिक्षा बोर्ड, अजमेर – rajeduboard.rajasthan.gov.in
  2. BSER Model Paper 2025-26 (Official)
  3. NCERT First Flight – Textbook for Class X
  4. NCERT Footprints Without Feet – Supplementary Reader Class X

यह लेख शैक्षिक उद्देश्य के लिए है। | NCERT Classes | अंतिम अद्यतन: जनवरी 2026

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